One would hope not, I am simply asking the question.

How would it apply to choice of law clauses in contracts, I wonder.

are you arguing that the Michigan legislation repeals all conflicts of law jurisprudence?? I very much doubt that the legislation is applicable to your foreign law examples.

Those who wish to live under sharia should relocate to another country where it is law.

Thanks. Your explanations are the clearest I’ve seen so far. Hopefully more will be forthcoming on this important issue.

Suppose a Saudi citizen, resident in Saudi Arabia dies, owning moveable assets, such as securities, deposit accounts and the like, in Michigan. Who is to inherit? Normally, succession to movables, wherever situated, is governed by the law of the defunct’s citizenship or domicile. In this case, that is the law of Saudi Arabia, which uses Shari’ a law. Are the courts of Michigan to apply some other, and which, law?

Again, suppose two Algerian citizens, resident in Algeria, marry and then divorce there by Talaq. One of them takes up residence in Michigan. By what law is the validity of their marriage and divorce to be judges. Normally, it would be by the law of Algeria, but that happens to be Shari’ a. So what law does apply?

Suppose a trust deed refers to “the bishop of X for the time being,” that immediately involves a question of Canon law as to who is, at any given time, the bishop, when his appointment takes effect, when he demits office on translation to another see &c

There are many other cases, where an instrument can only be construed by reference to the Canon Law.

Any law, which adversely effects religion or attempts to single out one religion but protects others (i.e. be anti-Islam but protects Judaic or Canon law) is unconstitutional.

The “Founding Fathers” had insight when they drafted the Constitution to protect us from such singling out.

Anti-sharia laws are designed to negate any attempt to apply Muslims laws to secular, non-Muslim legal proceedings.

Apart from that fact that many Roman Catholics are concerned that anti-sharia laws may eventually be used against Catholics (rightly or wrongly, I don’t claim to know), I still don’t see how an anti-sharia law, properly written, would impact laws that govern the internal functioning of the Roman Catholic Church.

In addition, the Canon Law was the vehicle of transmission of a good deal of Roman Law, particularly in those countries where the “Written Law” was superseded by customary law, like Northern France and England