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The Constitution Doesn’t Settle the Marriage Debate

Constitutional scholar and lawyer Robert P. George recently presented an oral argument in one of the cases considering the constitutionality of the federal Defense of Marriage Act, or DOMA, which allows each state to determine for itself the definition of marriage. The text of his argument follows this note. In an unusual move, the Obama Department of Justice declined to defend DOMA, even as Obama has stated (for example, in a May 9 interview with ABC news) that he favors allowing states to decide the definition of marriage for themselves. The case in which George presented the oral argument (which was in support of a written brief he filed together with Sherif Girgis and Ryan Anderson) is Cozen O’Connor, P.C. v. Tobits, in the United States District Court for the Eastern District of Pennsylvania. –ed.

A key question, perhaps the key question, this Court is being called on to address is whether the Constitution of the United States chooses between competing moral understandings of the nature, value, and social purposes of marriage, thus settling the question of how marriage is to be defined. On reflection, I believe your honor will see that it does not. Rather, the Constitution leaves the matter, as it leaves most matters of substantive law where choices between competing moral understandings must be made, for resolution in the forums of democratic deliberation and decision-making, including, in the case of federal law, the Congress of the United States.

Laws characteristically embody and reflect moral judgments. This is true of the law of contract and the law of murder, and it is no less true of the law of marriage. Laws should be made carefully so that they embody sound understandings of good and bad, right and wrong, justice and injustice; but as careful thinkers about law from Aristotle in ancient Greece to Dr. Martin Luther King in our own time have made clear, laws cannot be morally neutral, nor should we try to make them so. Efforts to mask the moral judgments embodied and expressed in our laws have no effect other than to wrap those judgments in a cloak of obscurity—creating a mere illusion of neutrality.

The historic law of marriage reaffirmed in the Defense of Marriage Act embodies the moral judgment that marriage is the conjugal union of husband and wife united in a form of relationship—a comprehensive sharing of life at every level, including the bodily-biological level—that is in principle apt for, and would naturally be fulfilled by, procreation and the rearing of children. This distinctive type of union is, and has always been understood to be, distinguishable from ordinary friendships and even from sexual-romantic domestic partnerships in its social function of binding men and women together in a way that, overall, best serves the interests of children who are born as a result of their sexual union, and serves society as a whole, which vitally depends on the marriage-based family for its stability. The conjugal conception of marriage is, to be sure, articulated in the scriptures of Judaism and Christianity as well as other faiths, but it was also articulated and defended by thinkers such as Plato and Plutarch in the ancient traditions of Greek and Roman thought with no reliance on the concept of divine revelation.

Of course, the conjugal understanding of marriage, though by far the dominant one not only in our own culture but in cultures generally, is not the only possible one. Insert a different moral understanding, and marriage could be defined, as it has been in some cultures, to accommodate polygamous partnerships and even, as some wish to define it today, to include multiple partners in polyamorous sexual unions of more than two persons.

In the case currently before your honor, the Court is being invited to replace the moral understanding at the heart of the historic conjugal conception of marriage with a competing moral understanding according to which marriage would be redefined as sexual-romantic domestic partnership—thus rendering sexual-reproductive complementarity unnecessary and irrelevant. Marriage, on the new moral understanding, would be an emotional union—a union of hearts and minds—but not a bodily union of the type made possible by the biological complementarity of husband and wife.

There are many good arguments for favoring the conjugal conception of marriage over the revisionist conception being proposed. The former moral conception can, and the latter moral conception cannot, provide an intelligible basis for the belief that marriage is, foundationally, a sexual partnership, as opposed to a partnership that could as well be integrated around any of a number of shared interests having nothing to do with sexuality. By the same token, the conjugal conception can provide an objective moral basis for norms of exclusivity, fidelity, and permanence of commitments—norms that on the revisionist conception can be affirmed, if at all, only on the basis of subjective sentiment, not moral principle.

However, this Court should not choose between the competing moral understandings on offer from supporters of the conjugal conception of marriage and the revisionist conception. This is because nothing in the Constitution settles the issue between them. It is left, rather, to the people acting on their own in referenda and initiatives in states that provide for those decision-making procedures, and through their elected representatives in the state legislatures and the Congress. It is up to the democratic process, not the courts purporting to act in the name of the Constitution, to make the moral judgment that marriage should be retained as a conjugal partnership, or to make the competing moral judgments that would redefine marriage, whether to accommodate polygamous, polyamorous, or same sex partnerships.

Robert P. George is McCormick professor of jurisprudence at Princeton University and a member of the First Things advisory council.

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Comments:

5.14.2012 | 4:50am
Michael PS says:
The analogy of Private International Law is clearly apposite here and without DOMA, the states will have to resort to the principles of Private International Law to resolve these questions.

The courts of all nations have had to develop a system of Private International Law to address cases with a foreign element. A very important class of cases has involved questions of civil status: questions of marriage, divorce, paternity, legitimacy, legitimation, adoption and the closely-related question of inheritance.

In the interests of international comity and in order to give effect to existing rights, courts have applied the personal law of the parties to these cases. They have referred the capacity to inter-marry, either the law of their citizenship or the law of their domicile,, with the law of the place of celebration governing the requisite formalities.

One well-recognized exception has been the refusal of courts to recognize marriages that conflict with their understanding of public policy, an exception that has mostly been applied to the prohibited degrees of marriage.

A more difficult question has been raised by the question of marriages that are actually or potentially polygamous. Thus, the courts of Germany have held that the relationship that exists between a man and the ladies living under his protection in a polygamous union is different in kind to the relationship of husband and wife, as defined in the Bürgerliches Gesetzbuch. Similarly, the English courts have held that to apply English marriage law to such relationships would be creating rights, rather than enforcing them. On the other hand, they have not denied all effect to such relationships, recognizing the rights of support and succession to movables that flow from them. The French courts, prescinding from the question of validity, have recognized a Dutch same-sex marriage for tax purposes

Same-sex marriages clearly involve similar issues, both of definition and of public policy.
5.14.2012 | 8:09am
ferd says:
Thank you Professor George. I fully agree with the premise that moral definitions are a matter for the people of the replublic and not for the Courts. The Constitution and, indeed, all law are defined moral statements that courts may interpret--only. Asking the Supreme Court to tell us what our underlying moral values are...(as in the definition of marriage)...is....well...infantile. It is like asking a referee in a football game if we actually should be playing golf or baseball? It is beyond the scope of their defined role...but an overreach they will most certainly be tempted to make.
5.14.2012 | 10:55am
Fitz says:
I am afraid the good proffesor has made a tactical political decision rather than a substantial legal opinion in the above statement.

It is simply a matter of historical fact and well established court precedent that marriage as traditionally defined is a fundemental constiutional right. The Justices of Mass. in the Goodridge case & other states have violated the consitutional rights of the peoples of their respective states.

The Supreme Court owes a duty to the law to reverse those decisions and return the United States to a single traditional definition of marriage.

I believe that Proffesor George knows that I am correct in this legal assesment. However; I believe conservatives have made a strategic decision to go "federalist" on this issue, believing it to be a better longterm strategy to coincide with both the overturning of Roe & the longterm survival of the conjugal marriage idea in at least some States.

Marriage has been considered a fundemental consitutional right defended at the Federal level since the inception of this country; coming from English common law and well established in Supreme Court precedent. Such rights are not up for majority votes in the given States and require a political movment that can enspire the requisite super majorities needed in amending our consitution.

This is what the Supreme Court should & must decide. Foundational social insitutions cannot be redifined on a state to state basis & fidelity to the law requires that a sound decision be issued.
5.14.2012 | 12:26pm
maineman says:
Thanks to both Fitz and Professor George for your thoughtfulness and clarity. This all begs the question of what it means that some of us have decided that the state, any state, can define something that predates it or, in a non-temporal sense, supersedes it.

When we define things in ways that they are not, then there can only be Hell to pay. I'm praying that we in Maine have the energy to beat back the barbarians at the gate yet another time come this fall, because I know the kind of battles that will necessarily take place if we cannot.
5.14.2012 | 12:59pm
"Gay sex" can never produce issue that is "flesh of the flesh and bone of the bone" (cf. Gen. 2:23) of both "partners." That is the key and irreducible distinction between gay and heterosexual sex. That potentiality for life is why the Common Law (and predecessor civilizations' law giving efforts) needed to regulate the sexual congress of men and women in the unique institution called marriage.

A voluntary joining together for life was the sine qua non for such onerous marriage rules as the prohibition of adultery that seems superfluous in a "gay marriage" (why should the state care about with whom a gay partner couples since gay sexual congress cannot produce children?) or the "presumption of legitimacy" of children born out of the woman that becomes absurd in a gay sexual relationship. Simply put: NO child born out of a woman in a "lesbian marriage" CAN be the genetic issue of the other lesbian partner. And no children can be born out of the flesh of either of the two partners in a "male homosexual marrriage." Simply put, in a "gay marriage" involving either sex, the "partners" have to outsource the contribution of the necessary opposite sex genetic material from some extraneous source. So, the "presumption" of legitimacy fostered by the Common Law becomes contrary to fact and is therefore wrong to impose. So why saddle gay sexual relationships with the whole panoply of rules that marriage entails?

So that the gays can get the same legal benefits from marriage that heterosexual couples can? What is the interest of the state in such a matter? Gays say that the tax/other legal benefits of marriage have been designed to foster "committed relationships"? What is the state interest in "committed relationships" if the relationships are not designed to foster a stable place for a couple to rear the flesh of their flesh and bone of their bones? Why should the state impose a "two people living happily ever after (or less if they choose on a no fault basis)" regime on the sexual cloupling of Amerricans if it is not related to the immense genetic potential of heterosexual congress? That potential is simply not present in gay sex.

Gays of couyrse note that not every heterosexual couple can or willproduce children due either to infertility, age or voluntary foregoing of the reproduction option. True, but a free state has no business getting into those questions and, in all events, the facts on thre ground can change (heterosexual couples with fertility issues may overcome them and Sarah and Isaac +modern science show that age is a floating line and people change their mind) in a heterosexual marriage but not in a "gay marriage."

So, why did the Founders not waste their time developing a constitutional distinction between Gay and heterosexual sex? Probably because they full well understood the distinction and in all events, there is that old maxim: "de minimis non curat lex."
5.14.2012 | 1:16pm
Nancy D. says:
With all due respect, since it is true that The Constitution serves to secure and protect our fundamental, unalienable Right to Life, Liberty, and The Pursuit of Happiness that has been endowed to us by God and it is true that the purpose of our unalienable Right to Life, Liberty, and The Pursuit of Happiness, is what God intended, then we can know that it is also true that our Founding Fathers recognized from the beginning, that God created them male and female, and for THIS reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh..."

The fact that only a man and woman can live in relationship as husband and wife, does not depend on location.
5.14.2012 | 1:23pm
Nancy D. says:
Regarding Roe, personhood does not depend on location, as a person is a person in every location, including when they are residing inside or outside of their mothter's womb.
5.14.2012 | 1:31pm
Mike says:
"Marriage has been considered a fundemental consitutional right defended at the Federal level since the inception of this country[.]"

Citations, please?
5.14.2012 | 1:34pm
International Law as the oracle of choice? Why not go intermillennial? When asked what he would do to restore order to his unravelling society, a long-ago Chinese emperor responded: "I would restore the meaning of words."
5.14.2012 | 1:49pm
The Moz says:
Nobody really knows, but it seems to me that a house divided can not stand. You simply can not have something as foundational as marriage redefined without the overwhelming uniform support of most Americans at all levels and in all segments of the society. Yes, it is that important - everything depends on it, especially economic health and decision making. Redefine marriage and you redefine the pillars of the society. This may be a good thing (personally I don't think it is for many reasons) but it is possible it is a good thing.

At least now America has a very clear choice in November. The two visions couldn't be more different. Play it safe and stick to what's worked since time began or try something new that seems, right now anyway, the way of the future.

Pick wisely. America has been up to this period a harbinger of what's to come for the world. Might it lose some of its moral high ground should the revisionist vision prevail? Who knows but one thing's certain. The rest of the world, the billions and billions of people in South America, Africa and Asia and Eastern Europe are not about to jump on the redefinition bandwagon anytime soon.
5.14.2012 | 2:15pm
Daniel says:
Im not sure laws are meant to be based on morality in our country. Laws are supposed to be there to protect our rights from being infringed upon by others. I do not see how same sex marriage meets the qualification of being an infringement of someone elses rights, therefore prohibition of same sex marriage does not seem to be justified.
5.14.2012 | 2:42pm
Fitz says:
Re: Mike: "Citations, please?"

Unenumerated consitutional rights like marriage are not discovered anew; rather they are assumed to have always been in the consitution & only articulated in precedent.

The more important citations you may be looking for are in Supreme Court case law on the subject of marriage: the New York Court points out in its recent decision. Discussing the Supreme Court precedents of Turner v. Safley, 482 U.S. 78 (1987); Zablocki v. Redhail, 434 U.S. 374 (1978); Loving v. Virginia, 388 U.S. 1 (1967); Griswold v. Connecticut, 381 U.S. 479 (1965); Skinner v. Oklahoma, 316 U.S. 535 (1942)

Judge Graffeo noted….

“To ignore the meaning ascribed to the right to marry in these cases and substitute another meaning in its place is to redefine the right in question and to tear the resulting new right away from the very roots that caused the U.S. Supreme Court and this Court to recognize marriage as a fundamental right in the first place.”1


1 - Hernadez v. Robles (J. Graffeo concurring)
5.14.2012 | 2:52pm
Ken Zaretzke says:
Courts, as well as legislatures, would benefit from seeing the issue through Aristotelian eyes, by asking what causes the institution of marriage to exist.

The material cause of marriage is sexual desire;
the efficient cause of marriage is wedding vows--or more broadly, commitment;
the formal cause of marriage is procreation;
the final cause of marriage--?? [not sure--maybe love].

The nature of a thing--here, the institution of marriage--is to be found in its form. Thus, the formal cause of marriage (procreation) tells us what marriage is really is. The efficient cause (commitment) does not, and cannot, tell us what marriage really is.
5.14.2012 | 3:08pm
I am very disappointed in this opinion of Prof. George. I would think that the Court could simply say that such a redefinition is beyond the competence of any political body, which can not re-define marriage because it is prior to and the basis of the state at any level. Another approach would be to honor the historical precedent of the meaning of marriage assumed in every law and decision in the United States.
5.14.2012 | 3:19pm
The decision in Goodrich v. Public Health, the seminal case in the homosexual marrige debate, was a corrupt decision across the board. The decision was written by Chief Justice Margaret Marshall of the Massachusetts Supreme Judicial Court, who had been, for her entire public life in this country, an aggressive advocate for the homosexual agenda. She had, many times, spoken to homosexual gatherings in support of their demand for rights that cannot be found in any constitution in the country. There is no doubt in my mind, Margaret Marshall knew how she would decide Goodrich before it came before her. Under the well established code of judicial ethics, Marshall should have recused herself from the case.

The Goodrich decision was grounded in the 14th Amendment's Equal Protection' clause, which says no citizen can be denied legal rights common to all. Before she could approach the gravamen of the case, Marshall was forced to, and did, restructure the definition of 'marriage,' until then understood to be a union of one man and one woman, to include homosexual couples, thus corrupting both the language and intent of the existing law.

The notion that homosexuals were being denied rights afforded to others was and is a fiction. Until Goodrich, marriage was considered to be a proposition whereby anyone was free to marry a person of the opposite sex. Homosexuals enjoyed that right under the Equal Protection clause of the 14th Amendment. That they chose not to exercise it was a decision they made, not the denial of a 'right.' Of course, homosexuals were not willing to accept the consequences of their decision, so they insisted the law be changed to accomodate them, and it was, with a corrupt decision by a vote of 5-4.
5.14.2012 | 3:27pm
Nancy D. says:
Daniel, All persons have the inherent Right to be treated with Dignity and Respect. No State or person should condone the engaging in or affirmation of same-sex sexual acts or any sexual act that demeans the inherent Dignity of the human person and is thus physically, emotionally, and spiritually destructive.
5.14.2012 | 3:31pm
Ken Zaretzke says:
Here’s a pragmatic argument of the sort that might strongly appeal to someone like Justice Anthony Kennedy: Surely we can all agree to distinguish between *grafting on* and *bootstrapping*. But once we do, the supporters of same-sex marriage are painted into a corner. Something that is grafted on to something else—call the something else the “root entity”—must be comprehensible in light of the origin of the root entity. The New Testament is grafted on to the Old Testament—the New Testament comprehends (yet transcends) the Old Testament. Libertarianism is grafted on to classical liberalism—it comprehends, and is absorbed within, classical liberalism while also changing it somewhat. Kantian-Millian liberalism is grafted on to modern (Lockean) natural law.

Same-sex marriage is *not* grafted on to traditional marriage. The inherent procreationlessness of same-sex marriage makes that impossible. Rather, same-sex marriage is *bootstrapped* on to traditional marriage. The genetic fallacy (confusing the origin of a thing with the nature of that thing) would be committed by opponents of same-sex marriage only if same-sex marriage were properly describable as being grafted on to traditional marriage. But as a species of bootstrapping, same-sex marriage must be said to be incompatible with the very nature of marriage; someone who claims as much is certainly not committing the genetic fallacy.
5.14.2012 | 3:51pm
yan says:
Fitz,

Whether the Constitution actually defines marriage as between a man and a woman should be established by legal argument and not by asking whether as a matter of public policy it SHOULD define marriage that way. I think Prof George is right about the Constitution not defining marriage simply because the Constitution doesn't mention marriage at all. To reverse Hume's famous dictum, we can't get an 'is' from an 'ought.'

Leaving the issue of the definition of marriage to the various states, however, leads to some absurd results, as you rightly observe. The authors of DOMA did a good job in attempting to halt or slow down the spread of this social contagion in the hope that the American people will come to their senses before judicial application of the full faith and credit clause causes DOMA to be struck down, even if the court agrees with George that the standard of review applicable to legislation in regard to sexual orientation should be merely rational basis. That's why they went federalist. It's not a winning strategy, it's a rear-guard action.

Bush therefore was right that we need a constitutional amendment defining marriage as being between one man and one woman. If we can't get one, conservatives are in danger of losing a war of attrition in which they are presented with gay marriage on a state by state basis as a fait accomplis.
5.14.2012 | 4:09pm
yan says:
Fitz,

You are insisting that the Court must follow the logic of the natural law. It hasn't in the past; why should it do so now?

Judge Graffeo is absolutely right in terms of the rationale for his holding. However, Griswold, which is the law, doesn't support your argument. [Nor do a number of other cases you cited, such as Redhail.] Griswold, while acknowledging marriage as a natural right, does exactly what Graffeo says is wrong: it eviscerates the natural law basis for finding that marriage is a fundamental right. If Griswold can do that, then there is no question that the Court can also do the same for the definition of marriage.

Griswold says by analogy: “We solemnly recognize the importance of fishing to fishermen. Without the act of fishing, there could be no fishermen, and they would have no livelihood. Fishing is a natural right of fishermen, as is clear from all observation and human experience. Therefore, we recognize fishing to be a fundamental right which cannot be infringed upon by the state. Now, since fishing is a fundamental right of fishermen, the state may make no law forcing lawfully employed fishermen, when they fish, to actually cast their lures into the water so as to make it possible to catch fish. That’s their business alone.”

If Griswold could sever procreation from the rationale underlying the basis for holding that marriage is a fundamental right, the Court can do the same for the sexes of the individuals that want to be married, even though it is absurd, and contradicts the natural law that gave rise to the fundamental right in the first place.

The words of the Constitution are not enough in this case. We need an event on par with an amendment in order to enshrine the legal definition of marriage as between one man and one woman.
5.14.2012 | 4:17pm
Gil says:
Daniel writes, “I do not see how same sex marriage meets the qualification of being an infringement of someone elses rights, therefore prohibition of same sex marriage does not seem to be justified."

What are our fundamental rights? Life, Liberty and the Pursuit of Happiness.

Going back to at least to Jean Piaget, child psychiatrists, psychologists and sociologists not prone to ideological savagery against children—in other words, those focusing more on the data that reveals what is apparent, the complex stages in the maturation process and what is required for full maturation—came to understand that to give children the optimum chances at being fulfilled in liberty (not enslaved to any number of psychological disorders incurred via deprivation of some sort that impedes their development and ultimately impinges on their psychological freedom), which leads naturally to optimum happiness, those children should at the very least have a mother and father. Historically these professionals have accumulated stacks of data that clearly demonstrate how complimentary parents (man and woman) provide an intellectual and emotional environment that suits the complex maturation of a child that cannot be replicated with any alternative; for intellectual and emotional clarity concerning gender-specific constitutionality is arrived at in complementary relationships, where gender specificity is called forth and best learned and adapted to in full maturation. This is why we as a culture in the past always acknowledged that a child deprived of a mother or a father was always tragic, and we as a culture did our best to compensate, knowing full-well that that compensation would never be adequate. For example, children who lost their fathers in WWII, their uncles and other male relatives would try to help, or sensitive male teachers and other male figures of the culture would in their way help compensate for the loss, knowing it would never suffice for what the children would receive with a mother and father present to them in their daily lives.

To legally REQUIRE that some children will automatically by social design be deprived of a mother or father in their lives should provoke moral outrage, the same as a law that would require that certain children in legally sanctioned relationships be deprived of selected vitamins that would not over time kill them, but certainly malform them.
5.14.2012 | 5:04pm
Michael PS says:
Whatever the courts decide as regards SSM in those states that permit it, I venture to suggest that it will not be that long before an American court has to deal with an SSM from Argentina, Belgium, Canada, Iceland, the Netherlands, Norway, Portugal, South Africa, Spain or Sweden. Such a case may involve a party or parties resident in the USA, or it may involve succession, on death or divorce, to property situated within its jurisdiction. Will it really be possible to apply one set of laws to foreign marriages and a different set of laws to marriages contracted in those states that permit SSM?

The fact that no European country permits polygamy has not prevented dozens of cases concerning marriages that are actually or potentially polygamous from coming before the courts there. Unless Congress and the Stale Legislatures address the question, the courts will, perforce, have to fill in the gaps.
5.14.2012 | 5:18pm
John Scanlon says:
I support George's argument and deeply thank him for having made it.

One exception to the 'legislative' based forum of decision, however, needs to be noticed. That is when, against clear Constitutional language and intent, fundamental moral matters are ignored and made a travesty of. Think the Civil War and the three ensuing amendments (completed, I think, by 1868). Not until 1954 (Brown) were these provisions truly looked at as the realities intended. It took the Court to do this. There was, contra abortion, written provision for the base decision. How it may have been implemented by Federal courts is another matter.
5.14.2012 | 6:17pm
Nancy D. says:
Our Founding Fathers knew it was a self-evident truth that that which is Life-affirming and Life-sustaining is good for the posterity and the prosperity of this Nation. They certainly didn't feel a need to list every truth that is self-evident, which is why they stated, "they are endowed by their Creator with certain unalienable Rights, that among these Rights..." Nor did they think the Day would come when some would claim that a Marriage could exist without a husband or a wife since they knew the very essence of Marriage requires a man and woman to live in relationship as husband and wife.
5.14.2012 | 9:40pm
Daniel says:
The notion that gay couples getting married somehow is a threat to the continuity of our society because they can not procreate is silly. Whether they get married or do not get married will not prevent any straight couple from having children. Its not as if the gays are going to suddenly turn straight, marry someone of the opposite sex, and procreate, just because we keep marriage as between a man and woman.

Also, one person said that banning same sex marriage is not a violation of the 14th amendment because everyone is free to marry someone of the opposite sex and therefore is being treated equally under the law. This is not true. Following this logic, interracial marriage should have been legal because everyone was free to marry someone of the same sex and therefore no one was being treated unequally under the law. The supreme court said that it wasnt constitutional. I do not see how it is any different in this situation.
5.15.2012 | 8:55am
Mal says:
That' right. No Constitution or parliament has any right to interfere or try to re-define marriage. Marriage occurs because our human nature is so designed. Two genders separate humans into two distinct groups, and this applies to all races. The principal organs associated with these two genders complement each other. When rwo people from these two genders commit themselves to each other there is a marriage. Our nature then ensures that this human phenomenon then provides society with stability and continuity. It has done so from the beginning of our history. No other realtionship, no matter how loving, is like it. Nothing is equal to it. We have a responsiblity, as the Chinese have been saying for over two thousand years to nurture. Marriage is under pressure in the West, let us not corrupt it further. Yes, it was wrong some time ago to bring race into the equation. Marriage is not about race, class, creed, our lusts and desires, but about the crtical features contained in our two genders.
5.15.2012 | 9:49am
Daniel argues:
"The notion that gay couples getting married somehow is a threat to the continuity of our society because they can not procreate is silly. Whether they get married or do not get married will not prevent any straight couple from having children. Its not as if the gays are going to suddenly turn straight, marry someone of the opposite sex, and procreate, just because we keep marriage as between a man and woman."

These are strawman arguments. The real point is that Marriage is an antecedent institution to either the English Common Law or the USA; the Constitution has nothing to say about that institution. Marriage was not a right designed to give tax breaks at the time of the Constitution; there was no marital deduction at the time because there was no income tax. We as a nation are messing up enough already, and oughtn't start messing with the very definition of Marriage. I heard a self-identified gay man on Rush Limbaugh yesterday arguing for gay marriage because heterosexual couples are aborting children and getting divorced whether gays get married or not. The guest host went along with that illogic as supposedly relevant comment, instead of saying that that just goes to prove how sick our nation is already.

We need to get back to a fundamental understanding of the purposes of marriage in a civil society. Marriage is not an option set up by the United States or any particular American state to confer tax and contractual benefits on couples who agree to go into a more or less committed life together for an indeterminate period because the state has determined that such commitments are somehow superior (in an amoral, of course, way) to other types of sexual conduct. Marriage as practiced in the US is the preexisting institution created by the Christian civilization(s) from which the US founders were descended which was designed to prevent casual sex from creating a nation full of illegitimate children without the support of two parents for the length of time the parents lived.

Due to political decisions, many politicians now accept that rampant illegitimacy and even reward it with "Earned Income Credits" to pay off the mothers and thereby ensure their support in the next election. It has gotten so bad, that custody decisions between birth mothers and birth fathers often turn on who can better use the EIC credit for a particular issue of their union. The whole welfare system, in fact, has been doing its best to separate the question of sex and marriage. The rules requiring no man in the house before a woman could get ADC benefits were the start of the slide in our culture from a white illegitimacy rate of 3% and a black rate of 25% back when Moynihan wrote his work on the Black Family in 1965 to a rate of at least 33% white illegitimacy and more than 70% black illegitimacy, now.

(BTW, the term "illegitimate" may sound like throwback language, but it makes the point that there always has been a nexus between procreation and marriage in the eyes of the law).
5.15.2012 | 10:45am
Justin says:
I don't see in this argument any reference to the 14th Amendment of the US Constitution. Does not the Due Process clause provide substantive protection to private contracts. Isn't Marriage a private contract? What about the Equal Protection law. Isn't Civil Unions for Gays vs. Marriage for Straights a case of "separate but equal". I see nothing in an Robert P. George's essay that addresses this. This is what was argued in California in the Prop 8 trial and has been agreed to by the courts so far.
5.15.2012 | 11:03am
Nancy D. says:
Not to mention the role that contraception has played in promoting promiscuity and the sexual objectification of the human person which demeans our inherent Dignity as human persons and thus God's intention for Marriage and The Family.
5.15.2012 | 12:14pm
Charlyne D says:
Just from my personal position, the State will pay me to get pregnant outside of marriage and avoid employment. It's the only way I qualify for medical insurance. The more children I have, the more money I receive from the government. As long as I'm not working or married, then the State pays for my rent, electricity, gas and cell phone, I don't have to pay taxes and in fact the federal government pays me an allowance for each child I am raising without a father in the house. Getting a job or getting married disqualifies me from those benefits and the security only they can provide.

At the same time, extending benefits to same sex couples discriminates against heterosexual partners. Neither are legally married, yet if the couple is of the same sex then they are qualified for favorable treatment that is not afforded to opposite sex people. For example, if my boyfriend works for the City of Charlotte, then health insurance would be extended to me in January 2013, IF WE WERE HOMOSEXUAL. However, because we are heterosexual then the only way his health insurance benefits would apply to me is if we were married.

To me, this appears as reinforcing public policy which discriminates against heterosexual marriage. The government creates laws that disfavor marriage between men and women. Married couples must fend for themselves while unmarried couples are extended financial support.

And we wonder why our Country is no longer the Leader among the Nations and our economy is in such sharp decline.
5.15.2012 | 1:20pm
Ken Zaretzke says:
The Aristotelian "final cause" of (the institution of) marriage--is it not sexual complementarity?
5.15.2012 | 4:41pm
Daniel said: "Also, one person said that banning same sex marriage is not a violation of the 14th amendment because everyone is free to marry someone of the opposite sex and therefore is being treated equally under the law. This is not true."


Nor is it what 'one person said.' What this person said is, the legal ground for finding homosexual 'marriage' a constitutional right was invalid because, under the 14th Amendment, there was no violation of the Equal Protection clause. Homosexuals were granted the identical right granted to heterosexuals. In order for such a case to proceed, a finding must be made that the parties were not treated equally, or there is no issue before the court. By the most rudimentary understand of the law, no such finding can be, or was, made in the Goodrich case. 'Banning same sex marriage' was not part of the equasion.
5.15.2012 | 6:40pm
Nancy D. says:
Only in a complementary relationship between a man and a woman, united in Matrimony as husband and wife, can two become one body, one spirit in Love, creating a new family.
5.15.2012 | 11:00pm
I read George's concluding paragraph as a calamitous abandonment of "the argument" the argument to which John Courtney deperately called us to in his masterpiece "We Hold These Truths". The issue of civilization ponderous as it may sound lies with those who will continue the argument.
5.22.2012 | 9:08pm
Terrence says:
The bottom line is, the reason why the Founding Fathers did not put marriage in the Constitution was because, in my opinion, there was no way they could ever had imagined marriage any other way. Marriage was settled in the Bible. One man, one woman period!

In my opinion, if the Founding Fathers could ever had imagined, 200 years in the future, that this nation would be in a dispute over God's law concerning marriage than they would have dealt with that subject as they wrote the U.S. Constitution.

I never said the Founding Fathers were perfect, because they were not. I am saying they were men who believed in God, at least a good majority of them, regardless of some of the activity they may or may not have been involved.
5.24.2012 | 5:37pm
Shrommer says:
responding to Daniel's 5-14 post, 11:15 am, to say "protect our rights from being infringed upon by others", both concepts are moral statements: the concept that we have rights and saying what those rights are, and the concept that these rights should not be infringed upon by others. BTW, when we speak of "others", if it is only government others we are protected from, or all private others as well. For instance, if the state were not allowed to take a life without due process, would that prevent an abortion doctor from performing an abortion at the mother's request?
5.26.2012 | 10:04am
Peter says:
Some very good comments and cited legal authority. The one factor not addressed by anyone is whether marriage is or should be considered an ecclesiastical matter. Several of you made reference to God's Word which is an integral part of marriage. This country was founded as a Christian nation which regrettably has been forgotten not only by the government, but also by the church. We are to render unto Caesar what is Caesar, and unto God what is God's. Yes, we have a pluralistic society where we allow for freedom of religion, but that does not remove the moral underpinning of our legal system. If the church actually considered marriage as an ecclesiastical matter then the foregoing dialogue would have several additional components. In saying this the state does have a right to license marriage, but when the state redefines marriage as it has under NO FAuLT divorce, and the church remains silent we are left with a limited dialogue. My position is that the church has an absolute mandate to address divorce under Matthew 18: 15-20 as an ecclesiastical matter. If the "church" treated marriage either as an ordinance of God or perhaps more correctly as a covenant between husband wife and God then the foregoing dialogue might not be necessary.
6.3.2012 | 10:54pm
Steve Skeete says:
The comment that all persons are free to marry under the constitution, and that the rights of homosexuals are not being infringed in this regard, is a sound one.

Homosexuals are free to marry within the law and the legal definition of marriage. To claim the "right" to marry someone of the same sex is to claim a new and different right, the right to "marry" outside of the legal definition. The granting of this right is a job for the legislature and not the courts. The people through their elected officials ought to determine whether they want to grant this "special" right to homosexuals whose purpose alone it will serve.

That justices of the courts have taken it upon themselves to dispense this "special" right is a usurpation of authority and an unnecessary interference in another sphere where it should have normally no influence.
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